The
Historical Jesus
Divorce
That Jesus said something about divorce is reported in several
gospel sources
- Mark 10.11-12; in Matthew 19.3-9 (almost certainly using Mark as its
source) and 5.32 (using
"Q", the source used by both Matthew and Luke, but not by Mark); Luke
16.18 (using "Q"); and 1
Corinthians 7.10-11 (though Paul doesn't refer to Jesus, but seems to make
his own personal ruling).Looking at these it's difficult to be sure about exactly what Jesus
said because the accounts differ substantially. We also have to note that Jews allowed
divorce, which by law only men could initiate. Therefore, what is in the
gospels doesn't seem to be Hebrew law. Rather, it looks as though the
ruling given by Mark reflects Roman rules about divorce, not those that would
have applied to Jesus and his followers as Jews.
Against historicity:
This ruling about divorce seems to reflect the situation of the early Christian
community, rather than of Jesus himself. There is much stronger
evidence that he stressed the acceptance of people as primary. This
would have referred to the hated tax collectors, despised Roman
gentiles and the morally corrupt such as prostitutes. It is
incongruent to stress acceptance of this sort of low-life and then go
on to condemn the divorced.
The textual variations suggest a later struggle to adapt a difficult
teaching. Changes were made later to reduce the gap between real life
and the ideal. Such
changes damage claims to be accurate history;
The appeal to scripture (Matthew 19.7-8) suggest not the words of Jesus
but a Christian use of the Hebrew Scriptures. Putting words into the
mouth of Jesus on the basis of "the Scriptures" seems at best strange to us and at worst dishonest. But
to the gospel authors such a device was normal.
Familiarity with Roman law suggests an early Gentile context for
the divorce ruling. If
so, this material derives not from Jesus but from the early Church,
which would have been concerned with matters affecting non-Jews. Jews
would have had the Torah to go by, and so would neither have needed
nor heeded a new ruling.
It is a puzzle that Jesus takes the position usually
promoted by Pharisees, while they are portrayed as questioning him. Something seems to have gone wrong
during the
transmission of the tradition about divorce.
For historicity:
The sources are independent (Mark, Q and Paul) and have differing contexts, indicating
some common ground;
Jesus' teaching would have been difficult for the early community to
follow. When a difficult teaching is retained rather than being
changed, it is an indication that it is good history. The
temptation would have been to change it if it was difficult to accept.;
The status of women is elevated by Jesus' stance. Though it
should be noted that this point could also be made about the status of
women in the early Christian congregations. Some of these were not
Jewish. Women, especially those of higher social status, were accorded
more respect and influence in Roman than in Hebrew society. This point
could apply equally to material derived from early Christian practice.
All-in-all the conclusion can't be avoided that it's difficult to be certain exactly what Jesus said.
While there are points on both the positive and the negative sides, the
balance swings to the negative - but not far enough for certainty. All we
can be reasonably sure of is that Jesus may have said something about divorce
and, if he did, seems to have been quite strongly against it. The
Church at large applies these sayings of Jesus as though they are his
verbatim words. That is, they are given a degree of certainty not
supported by the evidence. In my opinion, the historicity is too
uncertain to warrant the moralistic tone displayed by many on this issue,
and in particular the stern and uncompromising stance taken by most
churches.
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